That is rubbish as well. Nowhere does the Constitution declare that the Supreme Court is the only entity that can read the text of the Constitution.
That is an assumed power not in the Constitution.
You are turning into a frothing creature of another world with the gibberish.
Article 3.
The judicial Power of the United States, shall be vested in one supreme Court, and in such inferior Courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish. . . .
The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution. . . .
. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make.
Let's take it slowly now, my friend from Rio Linda:
- The Constitution establishes the SCOTUS as wielding the supreme "judicial power of the United States"
- The jurisdiction of that power extends explicitly to cases "arising under this Constitution"
- The power to be exercised is APPELLATE power, which includes the power to interpret, construe and resolve differences among lower courts
Note that the SCOTUS's appellate power is not unlimited - Congress can carve out exceptions, and otherwise regulate its jurisdiction. But in the absence of Congress' exercise of that authority, the decisions of the Supreme Court represent the authoritative law of the land.
That, of course, was established two centuries ago by Marbury v. Madison - admittedly a decision of that very court. But Congress has done nothing in 200 years to limit that authority which is why - in a Constitutional Republic that adheres to the rule of law rather than to the prejudices of the religious - the right of gays to the equal protection of the law, or the wall of separation between church and state enunciated in Everson v. Board of Education and Lemon v. Kurtzmann, is just as much a part of the Constitution as the Second Amendment.
