I'd be interested to know what folks think of Matthew 19:12
Eunuchs in biblical times were castrated men. Often Eunuchs were servants to royal harems and castrated to make sure they would not mess around with the maidens set aside for ruler's pleasures or for arranged marriages to princes. Advisors to kings were also usually castrated in order to make them more docile and focused on their task than be intrigued by a woman.
At the time of Christ around 30-33 AD - and in the context of the times, Eunuchs in the Greek also referenced those who were celibate and had no sexual desire, those born with birth defects rendering them impotent - or those who castrated to avoid temptation of sexual sin.
Jesus was referencing 3 types: those forced into castration; those who were born impotent or without sex organs and those who castrated or chose celibacy themselves rather than deal with sexual temptation.
The Greek and Hebrew worlds for Eunuch and homosexual or men having sex with other men in scripture are not the same. They are not used interchangeably to reference either Eunuchs or homosexuals. They are two completely different sets of words and phrases used to convey the meaning. Furthermore, Eunuchs are never referred to in Scripture as being in a state of sin, while homosexuality is condemned as sin and abomination in both the Old and New Testaments.
The Bible condemns homosexuality - when practiced by non-homosexuals.
Do you have any idea how STUPID that statement is? I mean REALLY STUPID.
Pray tell what chapter and verse from the Bible did you glean that application - or like everything else, did you just make it up in your own mind and attribute that to scripture?