Is repeatingly lying to the American people an impeachable offense...I am asking cause I really don't know?
During the discussion on what offense would rise to the level of an impeachable offense, George Mason's original text of the clause included the term "maladministration". James Madison argued that the phrase was too vague and that it would lead to impeachments due to political differences of opinion between Congress and the Executive.
"Lying to the American people" is vague and can be argued off as simple changes in policies or adapting policies to adapt to changes in current circumstances.
When Nixon and Clinton were impeached, there was irrefutable, physical evidence to their crimes.
The only way to impeach Obama is for behavior that the can be directly linked to, and there has to be physical evidence proving that direct link.
