In answer to the question in the title: only if you regard the victors in WW I as the aggressors in WW II.
The situation post WW III (aka the Cold War -- any sober strategic analysis will recognize that the Cold War was a world war fought in slow motion with the principals never going at it directly thanks to nuclear deterrence, and that the Berlin Airlift, Korean War, Cuban Revolution, Cuban Missile Crisis, Vietnam War, liberation of Grenada,... mujahadeen war against the Soviets in Afghanistan,... were actually campaigns, rather than separate wars) was analogous, though the mistreatment of no-longer Soviet Russia was not codified in a treaty as was the mistreatment of no-longer Imperial Germany. Trampling Russian interests in the Balkans in the 1990's, NATO expansion and the "color revolutions" were the analogues of the demilitarization of the Rhineland, the creation of the Polish corridor and limits placed on the Weimar Republic's military.
Usually Hitler analogies are bad strategic analysis and merely propaganistic. Unfortunately not in this case. Putin's revanchism is entirely analogous to Hitler's and needs to be opposed, rather than appeased, for the same reasons.