You didn't answer my question. By what standard do you condemn slavery as an "abomination" ??
You have posted that my Christian forefathers practiced an "abomination"... so it's only fair that I know by what moral standard you make such an accusation.
As I pointed out... the God of the Bible allows slavery and even codified laws on how to administer it. Christ never condemned slavery. It's not in the Bible... so you must have gotten the idea that slavery is an "abomination" from somewhere else. I just want to know where. Do you have your own personal set of moral standards apart from the Bible or are you following a modern general consensus standard that morphs over time and circumstance or ??
Hmmm.... I initially dismissed this line of conjecture, but after contemplating it for a bit, I think I begin to see what you are getting at.
If the Bible isn't the source for the immorality of slavery, what was the source of it?
So now you've got me in the position of believing slavery is immoral, but you have more or less disarmed me of the normal "go to" reference on all things moral.
I think slavery is perceived as theft. An extreme form of theft. Therefore it falls under the moral prohibition against theft from the bible.
I think it hinges on the difference between the old and new testament. The message of Christianity is that we are all brothers; that we are all children of God, and therefore equally worthy in his sight.
Christianity tosses out the old testament pecking order of who is more holy or more favored by God, and as a consequence it demolishes the class structure between the lords and the peasants.
Under the old structure, it is rational that someone more worthy of God should have authority over those less worthy, (Divine right of Kings) but when your structure changes to egalitarianism, then one person is just as good as another, and forcing them to give you the fruit of their labor becomes theft.
I think the American path away from Slavery led through the philosophers of Natural Law such as Locke, Rutherford, Wolfe, Vattel, and so forth.
All rely heavily on Christian foundations for their derived insights into the proper relationship between Man, God, and Society.
So I would have to answer that the moral prohibitions against slavery do derive from the Christian part of the bible, but do so indirectly as a consequence of the apostle's ministering to the Gentiles as well as the chosen.
They revealed a foundation of equality in the eyes of God, and this excludes the concept of one man being better than another.