Yes. Of course you are all right.
What I was trying, and apparently failing, to say is that the important thing is whether or not a crime happened, not if the person 'intended' to break the law. "Ignorance of the law is no excuse." As simple as running a red-light or stop sign, one cannot argue, 'I didn't see it.' I mean you can, if you want to, but it is doubtful that it would have any effect. Otherwise, everyone would say this in all cases and the law would become meaningless.
But yes, there usually is a tertiary consideration of intent, as in the difference between murder in the first degree and manslaughter. However, I cannot think of a case where the defendant could argue, "Yes, a law was broken. Yes, I broke the law. But, I didn't mean to break the law." and get away scot free. It might mitigate the charge and the punishment, but it would not dismiss the issue outright, which is what we are seeing here.
"I didn't mean to." is not a 'get out of jail free' card.
