Author Topic: After-Birth Abortion  (Read 168 times)

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Online mystery-ak

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After-Birth Abortion
« on: February 24, 2014, 10:46:37 AM »

After-Birth Abortion

The pro-choice case for infanticide.
By William Saletan

Just when you thought the religious right couldn’t get any crazier, with its personhood amendments and its attacks on contraception, here comes the academic left with an even crazier idea: after-birth abortion.

No, I didn’t make this up. “Partial-birth abortion” is a term invented by pro-lifers. But “after-birth abortion” is a term invented by two philosophers, Alberto Giubilini and Francesca Minerva. In the Journal of Medical Ethics, they propose:

[W]hen circumstances occur after birth such that they would have justified abortion, what we call after-birth abortion should be permissible. … [W]e propose to call this practice ‘after-birth abortion’, rather than ‘infanticide,’ to emphasize that the moral status of the individual killed is comparable with that of a fetus … rather than to that of a child. Therefore, we claim that killing a newborn could be ethically permissible in all the circumstances where abortion would be. Such circumstances include cases where the newborn has the potential to have an (at least) acceptable life, but the well-being of the family is at risk.

continued at link...

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Online mountaineer

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Re: After-Birth Abortion
« Reply #1 on: February 24, 2014, 11:29:31 AM »
Leave it to the left to object to the terminology but not the hideous action the words describe.  Form over substance.
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Online Oceander

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Re: After-Birth Abortion
« Reply #2 on: February 24, 2014, 04:47:06 PM »
So where does this slippery slope stop?  How long is someone a "newborn" who can be after-birth aborted?  Suppose that there is some condition that, if discovered before birth, would have "justified" an abortion, but that isn't discovered until significantly after birth?  Suppose that condition doesn't manifest itself until 6 months after birth?  Can a six-month old infant be after-birth aborted?  Furthermore, since undue hardship on the mother is a criteria for "justifying" an abortion, wouldn't these two be logically committed to the conclusion that a parent who falls into economic distress can after-birth abort that child at any point prior to the time the child moves out of the parents' house and starts supporting her/himself?  Suppose a formerly self-supporting child moves home and starts to rely on her/his parents for support?  Could such a child be after-birth aborted if the parents then found themselves in dire financial straits?
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